The descending scale in octaves offset by a quarter beat already establish the parallel octaves (parallel double octaves in this case). So I'm not overly concerned that this passage violates the sacred, eternal rule of no parallel octaves. My concern on the octaves is the tendency of strings to strengthen when playing at the octave. One only has to gander at the quartets of haydn, mozart, and Beethoven to see octave doublings abound in string writing- for dynamic and timbre purposes. My concern is that the bass is playing fast material that would fit more idiomatically in the viola part and vice versa. It's clear the composer isnt going for antiquated contrapuntal observation -even the first part isnt quite 16th century.