Chris Posted May 26, 2008 Posted May 26, 2008 So here I am composing again :D As a general rule, do Violins I play higher than Violins II? I have a score which begins with an arpeggio on Violins I, then later on Violins II come in and double this arpeggio an octave higher. For some reason I am thinking that this might go against the standard way of doing things. Guys? Quote
Guest QcCowboy Posted May 26, 2008 Posted May 26, 2008 You will find that generally, the 1st violin part is higher than the 2nd violin part... HOWEVER that doesn't mean 2nd violins aren't as good or are incapable of playing above the 1st violins. As a matter of fact, good string writing will take advantage of having two sections that have the same range. Crossing of voices is normal in violin parts (as a matter of fact, it's also normal to have violas and celli sometimes cross above the violins). The only thing I would warn about is needlessly placing 2nd violins above 1st. If there is no contrapuntal reason to do so, or no pressing musical reason to do so, then there really is no need for it. The ONLY issue is that of 2nd violins being placed further back on the stage, which alters the sound VERY slightly. Passages can, and should, be shared between 1st and 2nd violins. Don't always think of them as "octave doublers". Here's a short excerpt of a string piece where the music is basically shared between 1st and 2nd violins. The 2nd example shows the combined effect, thematically. Quote
Chris Posted May 26, 2008 Author Posted May 26, 2008 Thanks, my only concern was that if I gave Violins I the high part, they would be all of a sudden jumping an octave and being replaced by Violins II. Just doesn't seem "proper" to me. Although now I'm thinking it would be better to have Vns II playing the lower part to begin with and then later being joined by Vns I. :) Cheers. Quote
P.J. Meiser Posted May 26, 2008 Posted May 26, 2008 You could just start the arpeggios out on the Violin II part and then add the Violin I where you have it now if you're concerned about the leap. There's nothing wrong with having Violins II by them selves just like there's nothing wrong with having them on top. Quote
Gardener Posted May 26, 2008 Posted May 26, 2008 But generally, the more common variant would be the letting the second violins start alone and adding the first violins when the upper octave comes in. Unless you want specific contrapunctual (as QCC explained) or spatial effects I'd keep the first violins above the second ones. (Spatial effects between first and second violins, used by several composers from the 19th century onwards, are usually more effective with the traditional "German" orchestra seating though, where the first and second violins sit opposite to each other in the front of the stage, in contrast to the modern "American" seating, where they sit next to each other.) Quote
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