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Chord Inversions


PSaun

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Okay so I have a question about the second inversion.

I'm a self-taught composer and as such I don't really have an oppurtunity to ask questions and such. I have to ask myself them and figure it out on my own. Most times it works but this has been bugging me.

Chords in Second Inversion have one function, at least in a Classical context,that I know of and that's the cadential six-four.

My question is however can a chord be considered in Root Position or First Inversion even if the notes above it outine a Second Inversion chord?

For Example (in sequence of Bass to Soprano)

C - G - C - E

I'd consider this to be in Root Position with the Tenor, Alto, and Soprano outlining a Second Inversion chord.

Is this an acceptable voicing or not? I'm not sure cause the C is in the Bass but what's above it is in Second Inversion. It confuses me.

As far as I know the reason for the avoidence of the Second Inversion is because the ratio between the frequencies of the fifth in the bass and the root above it is extremely complex and creates an implied dissonance between voices. By that definition so long as eithier the Root or the Third is in the Bass then this ratio is avoided.

So my question still stands. Can a chord be considered to be in Second Inversion (and therefore incorrect) even it the Root or the Third is in the Bass?

Thanks.

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I've always learned that the note in the bass is what determines the inversion.

Okay that's what I thought and have been going by, but my Theory Books say nothing about it so I wasn't sure. Thanks.

I'm sure this topic is just like parallel fourths though. Some people allow them some people don't, depends on who you ask.

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I also have understood that the bass determines the inversion of a chord. In voice leading the soprano can be almost equally important, but voices other than the bass are not responsible for determining the inversion.

Dominus was joking of course. In a very serious manner not ever to be taken lightly. We do that around here. Be ware.

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As far as I'm concerned chords in second inversion are one out of many great ways to wary the homophonic texture. I have to admit I don't study classical works enough to say if they only used second inversions for dominant six-four chords, but from what I have been taught in music theory there's nothing telling you not to use second inversions in other chords. Smith-Brindle's book on composition encourages the use of inversions instead of relying on root positions, which he saw as a kind of problem with his students. He kinda means you can wary your music a whole lot more if you think outside the world of root positions. He shows a diagram with the amount of different chords you can get from the diatonic scale considering all inversions (6th and 7th included), I think it was 70 chords or something.

I find this kind of interesting. If you look at the bass as a melody of it's own (in most cases it's good to do so imo) you'll end up with chords in second inversion pretty quick.

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As far as I'm concerned chords in second inversion are one out of many great ways to wary the homophonic texture. I have to admit I don't study classical works enough to say if they only used second inversions for dominant six-four chords, but from what I have been taught in music theory there's nothing telling you not to use second inversions in other chords. Smith-Brindle's book on composition encourages the use of inversions instead of relying on root positions, which he saw as a kind of problem with his students. He kinda means you can wary your music a whole lot more if you think outside the world of root positions. He shows a diagram with the amount of different chords you can get from the diatonic scale considering all inversions (6th and 7th included), I think it was 70 chords or something.

I find this kind of interesting. If you look at the bass as a melody of it's own (in most cases it's good to do so imo) you'll end up with chords in second inversion pretty quick.

Of course you are right J.Hall.

In fact, I love the kind of ambiguity that can happen the almost independent bass line you can create from 6/4 chords, or other "late" inversions. Especially when you mix everything with the whole idea of being pandiatonic or bitonal.

You're right though, but only from a compositional standpoint.

CPE theory is just strict in certain ways. Sorta. But you have the right idea.

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