conker Posted July 5, 2010 Posted July 5, 2010 Hello! I'm learning to write music. Say I want the c# in the picture to be played 1/8 into the bar. (4/4 time). Would it be correct to write a 1/8 rest before that note despite having other notes start on beat 1? Quote
roy Posted July 5, 2010 Posted July 5, 2010 It would be correct if both the f#'s are different voices than the c#-f#-a#-c# part that follows. Although I don't know what you're trying to do with splitting it up in 3 voices in the lower staff. It seems to me though that you'd better remove the rest, and write the upper f# as an 8th note. That way you will have two voices in the lower staff: the low f# which is held the entire measure (if writing for piano you'd probably hold it with pedal), and f#-c#-f#-a#-c# above that as the second voice. And ofcourse the third (or actually first) voice in the upper staff. 1 Quote
James H. Posted July 6, 2010 Posted July 6, 2010 I put three examples here temporarily: http://wiki.youngcomposers.com/Sandbox The first bar is what I saw in your handwriting first. The second bar is what I saw after I noticed you had drawn vertical lines to place beats... and that there was a beat missing at the *end*, not in the middle. In otherwords, I'm supporting royreintjes, there. The third bar is after I more carefully read what you want, it seems like you want that F# to be a quarter note, so I just tied it so it sustains. This works for piano. Quote
conker Posted August 3, 2010 Author Posted August 3, 2010 Thanks royreintjes and James H.; to tie eight notes together makes sense, as in third example. Quote
Recommended Posts
Join the conversation
You can post now and register later. If you have an account, sign in now to post with your account.