zoo04u Posted September 30, 2012 Posted September 30, 2012 Hi, I've recently started making music using Apple GarageBand. I have only a minimal musical knowledge, so I have a lot of questions that might be pretty basic. This is mostly in the context of rock/pop type music, but it probably applies to classical too. So, lets say I have a bass guitar and a lead guitar. Should they be playing the same notes? (Obviously, it would be at different octaves) For example, I recently made something simple that at one point goes D, C, D, F. I have the bass guitar and the lead guitar playing the same notes at the same time. That just seems really simplistic, but if I had them playing two different things at the same time it wouldn't sound "right", would it? Its kind of hard to explain, but basically I guess my question is this: How does a lead guitar "get along" with a bass guitar? What should they be playing in relation to eachother? And on top of that, what about all the other parts? What is each instrument (essentially everything but the drums) playing in relation to the others, so that everything doesn't just sound like a bunch of noise, and actually "fits together"? Quote
.fseventsd Posted September 30, 2012 Posted September 30, 2012 rock isn't really my specialty but— from what i know of it the bass guitar usually gets a bass line which is meant to support the rest of the mix, and define the chords. the bass line is essentially the foundation of the whole song. the lead guitar by contrast is a soloist (secondary to the voice, if there is one); it can double the bass or the melody depending on which one you want to be stronger, or play independent material that harmonises with the bass line. i don't know how much you know about harmony/chords (what instruments you play, etc) but probably the best thing you can do is listen to examples from bands you like and try to figure out what the bass or the lead is doing at any given point. again my background's mainly in classical music so maybe someone else can be of more help? Quote
siwi Posted September 30, 2012 Posted September 30, 2012 Again I am mainly a classical composer and do not play guitars, but I hope to be of some help here. The important thing for your question is to understand the concept of what we call harmony. Read this: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Harmony, and watch this: . Then search for other sites and videos that will explain harmony, triads and chords. Listen to songs and try and work out what each instrument is doing.When you understand how chords work and how to structure them, you'll see how to write notes for the bass that form the bottom of the chord, and how to write notes for the rhythm guitar that fill in the other pitches of the chord. Most of the chords in pop and rock are just modifications of simple ones that can be used in different ways. Quote
Sarastro Posted October 1, 2012 Posted October 1, 2012 From a classical background, by my two cents, nonetheless: I compare the overall texture of a typical pop/rock song with the baroque monody; i.e. melody and bass polarization, and everything else acting as a filler. Therefore, I'd write my bass to the melody so that counterpoint is solid between those two parts and nothing else is needed (the music feels harmonically complete enough with just those two voices) and then I would complete the harmony with chords (textured or patterned at will) or some countermelodies. The filler material does not need to adhere too strictly to classical rules of counterpoint. In a pop/rock context, I guess the usual restrictions between melody and bass do not apply either (for instance, the V to IV progression, which leads to anomalies in voicing, does not belong to the baroque vocabulary, which only admits IV to V, whereas it is common in pop and rock). To sum up: focus on strong bass and melody in relation with each other (albeit with relaxed counterpoint rules) to get the foundation, and then fill with chords and/or harmonically compatible countermelodies. Quote
zoo04u Posted October 2, 2012 Author Posted October 2, 2012 This is extremely helpful so far. Thank you for your replies. This is my next question: I made something simple that has a basic 4/4 "four-to-the-floor" beat. The problem is that my bass isn't completely in sync with the beat. When I put the bass on solo and hit play, it sounds the way I want it to. And I think it even sounds fine with the beat, but when I look at the timeline they're not completely together. I can explain it better with screenshots: http://imgur.com/a/Dko5w Okay, so the first five beats are together with the bassline, but when you get to 6 and 7 its out of sync. Like I said, it sounds fine when I listen to it. I'm just wondering if this is technically correct? Is it okay for it to be outside of the beat like that? And just to clarify, this isn't an isolated part of the song, its a main portion that pretty much repeats throughout. Quote
.fseventsd Posted October 2, 2012 Posted October 2, 2012 That's called syncopation, and in this context it's not only fine but probably sounds better than straight 4's all the way through. Off-beat accents add rhythmic drive. 3 Quote
sparky Posted October 2, 2012 Posted October 2, 2012 Ok lets say you have a chord progression: a simple I IV V. In the key of C the chords would be C, F, and G respectively. The rhythm guitarist would be playing the chords, and the bass can play any of the three notes in the chord. For example, a C chord has the notes C, E, and G. The guitarist can play the full chord while the bass plays an E. This is the same thing as a C chord in first inversion. The bass can even play notes outside of the C chord, for example, he can play a B as the bass, making the chord a C major 7th in 3rd inversion. If you want the bass and guitar to play different SINGLE line melodies, I would suggest learning some counterpoint. So yes, they can be playing two different things at the same time but it has to compliment the harmony to some extent. If you get into jazz you can have a little more fun, but that's another story. Quote
phoenixflames Posted October 18, 2012 Posted October 18, 2012 Heya guys :) I'm not sure whether this is a bit of a silly question or not, but anyway: in order to compose a requiem, can it only be written after the composer has had a personal loss etc, or is this not so? Quote
zoo04u Posted October 31, 2012 Author Posted October 31, 2012 I have another question: Does everything have to be in harmony with the other parts at all times? Can things purposely be out of harmony (I suppose for the purpose of building tension or suspense)? And if so, is this what's called "dissonance"? I'd like to clarify what brings this question up: I was listening to "Love Comes Quickly" by the Pet Shop Boys. There's what sounds like strings (possibly a synth) that starts at 1:40 and seems to end around 2:18 (its kind of high-pitched and in the background). Now, what confuses me about this, is the fact that it seems to be the same note droning on that entire time (from 1:40 to 2:18) while the rest of the song just continues to moves along. Is it really in harmony with the rest of the song that whole time? Quote
zoo04u Posted October 31, 2012 Author Posted October 31, 2012 I understand that these questions may seem silly to more experienced composers, but there's a reason I started a thread called "Some Basic Questions". If you're not prepared to actually answer such basic questions, why waste your own time adding a snarky response to a discussion that has been very helpful and constructive so far? You "sincerely hope" that I'm not ten years old? I wasn't aware that everyone past a certain age was automatically expected to have a certain level of musical knowledge. Everyone has to start somewhere, and some later than others. There's no such thing as a stupid question, just stupid answers. 1 Quote
Kvothe Posted November 1, 2012 Posted November 1, 2012 No, that's a lie. Most questions are stupid. Yes, you should always be strictly consonant. In fact, as much as possible you should try to use only one pitch at a time. If you have to use a fifth hear and there it is acceptable, but I wouldn't recommend it until you get really good at octaves. In fact, it would probably be best if you didn't use any pitches at all. Just three minutes of silence, repeat that about 10 times and then you've got yourself a best selling album! Do not give faulty advice here; in counterpoint direct 5ths and octaves should be avoided till the composer has a a better handle on part writing. hidden 5ths and octaves may be used in certian contexts. check you text on this. Quote
.fseventsd Posted November 1, 2012 Posted November 1, 2012 Do not give faulty advice here; in counterpoint direct 5ths and octaves should be avoided till the composer has a a better handle on part writing. hidden 5ths and octaves may be used in certian contexts. check you text on this. Actually, fifths and octaves are the only acoustically pure intervals, so you should use as many of them as possible, to the exclusion of all others. Ignore the theoretical texts, Fux was a charlatan and his so-called "thirds" will never catch on Quote
Kvothe Posted November 1, 2012 Posted November 1, 2012 Actually, fifths and octaves are the only acoustically pure intervals, so you should use as many of them as possible, to the exclusion of all others. Ignore the theoretical texts, Fux was a charlatan and his so-called "thirds" will never catch on Hehe....yes one can do that; organum at the 5th or at octave, but not till the student masters chord connection. Learn the rules first, then bend them, Quote
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