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Posted (edited)

Hi everyone, another simple harmony question for a dummy.

 

So according to classic harmony if I was trying to write in that style as accurately as possible and be greaded on it;

 

If I have a seventh chord is there a way for the 7th to be resolved before the next chord? For example in the chord movement Fmaj7 to Gmaj; does that E note of Fmaj7 have to make sure it lands on that D a step down when the G chord is hit? Or can it move to that D as a passing tone or something before the G chord and have it count as resolving the 7th?

 

Thanks for your time

Edited by ansthenia
Posted (edited)

Thanks for the reply.

 

 

Let me word my question better; I know that using non-chord tones like passing tones and neigbouring tones in multiple voices between chords may create new "passing" chords in between, but you don't need to concern yourself with these, they are just a side occurance of having active lines. My question is can you still use these very brief appearances to resolve your current non-chord tones?

 

For example, if you could tell me if this would be "correct" in tradiitonal harmony (I'm sorry I don't have any notation software I have to use words):

 

(In A minor) An Amin7 chord strikes at the beggining of the bar, it's in the basic root position seperated by 3rds with the 7th being in a higher ocatave.  On the 2nd beat the E moves to F as an 8th note and then back. Even though I only used this as a neighbouring tone to create some movement it does technically turn that base Amin triad into an Fmaj triad for a small amount of time. Could I use that very breif moment the Fmaj chord makes an appearance to resolve the G of Amin7 down a step to F? and then have it jump up to A when the neighbouring F goes back down to E.

 

Thanks for your time

Edited by ansthenia
Posted

Sounds good.

 

I know you should do things based on how they sound to you. I was just wondering if this would be considered a correct resolution of the 7th in strict classical harmony.

Posted (edited)

In strict classical harmony the seventh of any seventh chord (in any inversion) is the dissonant note and therefore the one that must be resolved (usually down by step). Some seventh chords contain tritones (which also must be resolved according to traditional harmony rules) and therefore multiple voices have to move, but in a minor or major seventh one can resolve the dissonances one note at a time (eg Fmaj7 [E is dissonant, resolves down] -> Dm6/5 [D is a correct resolution, but C is dissonant] -> Bø4/3 -> E7 [G# and E are correct resolutions, but D is dissonant] -> Am. One could theoretically resolve to Am earlier by cutting out the Bø4/3, but this would create consecutive fifths between the Dm6/5 and the E7, so the chords would have to be revoiced. One could also create a "cycle of fifths" progression by resolving two notes at a time - Fmaj7 -> Bø4/3 -> Em7 -> Am4/3 -> Dm7 -> G4/3 -> Cmaj7 etc)

 

To answer your original question, the E of an Fmaj7 chord does have to resolve to D (or F, in which case it's not an Fmaj7 chord at all but a plain F chord with an appoggiatura), but Fmaj7 and G can't be placed side by side in the first place because of the consecutive fifths (you'd need to interpose some other chord, e.g. a D6/5).

 

To answer your second question, that would be correct under the following circumstances: (1) the Am7 chord on the first beat is a "double appoggiatura" to the F6 chord on the second beat; (2) the Am chord on the second half of the 2nd beat is a passing chord between F6 and B7 (4/2) (G6/5 would also work); (3) the treble A moves down to a G. I would also move the 3rd up an octave as the chords will sound better and cleaner that way. This is an example:

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Edited by .fseventsd
  • Like 2
Posted

Thanks .fseventsd!

 

No one will probably notice unless you give them a score and they're looking for things to nit pick. 

 

That's what I wanted to know; if they were looking at the score and trying to point out flaws, would that be one of them or is it correct and there's nothing wrong with it in strict harmony.

Posted

Thanks .fseventsd!

 

 

That's what I wanted to know; if they were looking at the score and trying to point out flaws, would that be one of them or is it correct and there's nothing wrong with it in strict harmony.

 

As long as it's treated as a non-chord tone, it would be 'correct'. That's no fun though ;)

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