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Posted (edited)

Hello everyone

 

I'm reading "Contemporary Harmony" by Ludmila Ulehla, and there's just a question I have about root analysis in two-part writing and how tones get 'absorbed' into a root. It's very simple, but I'd just like some clarification. I'll post the example with the accompanying text and then ask my question.

 

A.png

 

B-1.png

 

 

*Please ignore any rhythmic influences, in the book the examples have no time signature or bar lines; no strong or weak beats*

 

"Example A illustrates linear fifths and one vertical fifth. The moment the vertical fifth is struck, the clarity of the C root is certified. By contrast (Example B), if the G is located in the higher octave, the linear influence of the perfect fourth, D to G, would suggest a G over C pedal connotation"

 

My question is: why is the first part recognized as D 4/2 (3rd inversion) in example B but not in example A? why does example A not look like this?:

 

ScreenShot2014-04-22at050637.png

 

EDIT: oops sorry, the top bar is treble cleff and the bottom one is bass cleff, but I'm sure you figured that out. Again there shouldn't be a barline there, it's not actually in 4/4.

 

I'd appreciate any help, when analysing two-part writing I'm struggling a bit to see if a phrase should get it's own symbol or if the notes are absorbed into the root of the phrase that comes after it.

 

 

Thanks for your time.

Edited by ansthenia
Posted

i think it's an error that they wrote C and not D4/2 in the first example. and i don't believe that in example B, second bar, the harmony is G/C, but rather C(Csus2). not sure how these harmony notations work, but in my mind the melody is in G indeed, but the bass is C, put toghether C+G=C harmony. again i have no experience reading these harmony notations.

  • 3 weeks later...
Posted

D has as much chance as C to be heard as the prevailing chord. If not for the linear fifth to vertical fifth effect, so she claims, one would reject C as the basic harmony, especially considering how often the dominant of D is reiterated compared to the one G. Once the effect is perceived and the root is registered convincingly there's no benefit in being two sided. The sus and add are probably omitted due to non-jazz conventions the writer chooses to adopt.

Posted

Nah, this is very simple:

 

The macroharmony is C (added thirds stuff), like the jazz 6/9 chords and maj9 chords. This is because, to whatever note is in the bass, you can add thirds forever of different qualities to find all twelve tones.

 

Example:

C E G Bb Db/D F Ab Cb Eb Gb Bbb

 

So, for m. 1

C                   D                          A

 

And, for m. 2 

C    G            D                          A

 

In both cases, this follows the circle of fifths quite nicely:

C G D A (E B F# etc.)

 

Because these fifths are so close together, they are consonances. The closer the fifths are, the more consonant. Look at this video for more on the spectrum of fifths: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Yga8EEAQFqM

 

So, yes, they are absorbed into the BASS, not the root.

 

In terms of microharmony, you could explain away the D chords in inversion, but people are going to HEAR that C as the bass, unless something resolves in a traditional sense.

 

Hope that provides a different perspective.

Posted
I think the writer is demonstrating the influence a melodic movement can have on the perception of a root. Regardless of the close relationship between the bass note and other notes and the features of an extended chord, if I'm understanding correctly, she's suggesting that with the fifth and fifth element eliminated by swapping the G the bass gets "absorbed" instead.

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