Is this bad notation, considering that I have hemiolas going on?

So I got told that my notation in 6/8 was bad because I used regular quarter notes and half notes and didn't bother with ties. That would indeed be true if I wasn't going for rhythmic polyphony and by consequence had some polyrhythm in there. But that is what I'm going for and there is polyrhythm in there, hemiola to be more specific. For context, this is part of what will be the first movement of an orchestral suite, and I, like Holst before me, am going for rhythmic complexity and a significant key contrast in this movement in 6/8. Other composers before me, such as Beethoven, have pulled off this hemiola in dramatic sections, be it a full orchestral forte or a more suspended phrase like what I'm going for here. To provide a grounding to this rhythmic polyphony in the woodwinds, I have the strings playing repeated eighth notes(now the person who said my notation bad said that eighth note tremolo isn't a thing, that tremolo is just unmeasured repeating. I would have to disagree. I would say it is fast, but not necessarily unmeasured, so eighth note or 32nd, doesn't matter as long as it's fast enough. And here I would say it's on the slow side of tremolo, but still a tremolo nonetheless) and the horns playing sustained chords. This eighth note tremolo and sustained chords outlines a mostly diatonic chord progression in C# minor.

Adding further to said grounding is 16th notes in the tympani in an alternating I V I pattern.

So, now that you know that I was going for this rhythmic polyphony and hemiola, is it bad notation? Because the thing about the ties is that to me, it would make it look too native to 6/8 and not like a hemiola cross rhythm. With the regular quarter and half notes, it makes it very clear in the score that there is this hemiola going on. Same for if you notate 2 dotted quarters in a 3/4 bar. But that other person brought up that it might be confusing to the players. Maybe to a novice, but surely not for experienced players as they run across things stranger than hemiola all the time. So, is it really bad notation if it makes things clear to the conductor about there being hemiola?

I’ve conducted orchestra and band pieces that are notated exactly like this. I don’t see the problem that this person has with the way you’re notating this music. As far as I’m concerned, you’d be right to question their opinion on this matter.
 

Show them a score of the notation you’re basing this fragment on (from Holst or whoever) and say with confidence that you’re doing this correctly based on how other composers execute this in notation.
 

Now, if it’s a composition professor making this an issue, you may want to tread lightly. It’s not worth winning a battle if you lose a war, or so the saying goes. Be respectful, but you can stand up for yourself on this one a bit, I can assure you. 

I don't see the problem either. It is clear.

Have you considered writing simultaneously 3/4and 6/8.

8 hours ago, Luis Hernández said:

I don't see the problem either. It is clear.

Have you considered writing simultaneously 3/4and 6/8.

 

No, partly because which instruments are playing the hemiola changes from measure to measure.